Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 18:30
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Why is China the first in the world to counter the "reciprocal tariff"?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why has no country adopted the SA80/L85 rifle?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?